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Daily-mcqs 30 Sep 2026

Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams 30 Sep 2026

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Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams

Q1:

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court Collegium system in India:

  1. The Supreme Court Collegium is a statutory body explicitly created by an amendment to the Constitution of India.
  2. It consists of the Chief Justice of India (CJI) and the four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court.
  3. The recommendations of the Supreme Court Collegium regarding the appointment of judges are binding on the President after reconsideration once, if reiterated.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 2 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Collegium system has no statutory or constitutional basis in the original text of the Constitution or via any parliamentary statute. It is an innovation evolved through a series of Supreme Court judgments (known as the Judges Cases—specifically the Second Judges Case, 1993, and Third Judges Case, 1998). An attempt to give it a statutory status through the 99th Constitutional Amendment Act and the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) Act was struck down by the Supreme Court in 2015 as unconstitutional and violative of the basic structure.


Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court Collegium is indeed a five-member body comprising the incumbent Chief Justice of India (CJI) as its head and the four senior-most puisne judges of the Supreme Court.


Statement 3 is correct: According to the legal precedents established by the Supreme Court, if the Collegium resubmits/reiterates a recommended name unanimously to the government/President after it is sent back for reconsideration, the executive is bound to make the appointment.


                            

Q2:

With reference to the appointment of Judges to the Supreme Court of India under Article 124 of the Constitution, consider the following statements:

  1. A person is qualified for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court only if they have been a High Court judge for at least five years or an advocate of a High Court for ten years, or is a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President.
  2. The recent recommendation by the Collegium includes the Chief Justices of the Gujarat High Court, Delhi High Court, and the High Court for the State of Telangana for elevation.
  3. The minimum age limit required for a person to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court is 35 years as per the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 124(3) of the Constitution of India, a person must be a citizen of India and fulfill at least one of the three criteria: (i) have been for at least 5 years a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession; or (ii) have been for at least 10 years an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession; or (iii) be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President.


Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court Collegium's resolution recommended Justice Sunita Agarwal (Chief Justice of Gujarat HC), Justice Devendra Kumar Upadhyaya (Chief Justice of Delhi HC), and Justice Aparesh Kumar Singh (Chief Justice of Telangana HC) for elevation to the apex court.


Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not prescribe any minimum age limit for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court (though there is a retirement age of 65 years stipulated under Article 124(2)).


                            

Q3:

Consider the following statements regarding the 'PRAHAAR' National Counter-Terrorism Policy and Strategy:

  1. It is a proactive, intelligence-led framework released by the Ministry of Home Affairs that adopts a whole-of-government and whole-of-society approach.
  2. Human Rights and the Rule of Law are formally incorporated as one of its core foundational pillars.
  3. The strategy exclusively focuses on central agencies and military responses, keeping local police stations outside its implementation purview.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Released by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), PRAHAAR serves as India’s comprehensive national counter-terrorism policy and strategy framework, emphasizing a unified whole-of-government and whole-of-society approach.


Statement 2 is correct: The framework explicitly outlines seven key pillars, which formally elevate and integrate Human Rights & Rule of Law, alongside Prevention, Response, Aggregating Internal Capacities, Attenuating Conditions, Aligning International Efforts, and Recovery & Resilience.


Statement 3 is incorrect: Recent policy reviews and conferences emphasize decentralizing and ensuring the implementation of PRAHAAR down to the police-station level, positioning local police as crucial front-line actors rather than excluding them.


                            

Q4:

Consider the following statements regarding the definition and legal framework of terrorism in India:

  1. Section 113 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, provides a statutory definition for a terrorist act in India for the first time in the mainstream penal code.
  2. A terrorist act under the BNS includes acts intended to threaten India's economic security or unity and integrity through lethal means or hazardous substances.
  3. Terrorism and insurgency are legally and conceptually identical, sharing the exact same strategic objectives and methods of territorial control.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: With the enactment of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, which replaced the colonial-era Indian Penal Code (IPC), terrorism has been explicitly defined and penalized under Section 113 for the very first time in India's primary general criminal code.


Statement 2 is correct: Under Section 113 of the BNS, 2023, a terrorist act encompasses any violent, destructive, or coercive act intended to threaten India's unity, integrity, sovereignty, security, or economic security (stability), or to strike terror using firearms, explosives, or hazardous substances.


Statement 3 is incorrect: Terrorism and insurgency are distinct concepts. An insurgency generally involves an organized armed challenge to state authority with explicit political or territorial control objectives. In contrast, terrorism primarily relies on systematic violence, intimidation, and coercion targeting civilians or infrastructure to create widespread fear and achieve ideological, political, or religious goals, without necessarily seeking direct territorial governance like an insurgent movement.


                            

Q5:

Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Convention against Cybercrime:

  1. It is the first comprehensive, legally binding universal global treaty specifically addressing cybercrime.
  2. The treaty officially entered into force immediately upon adoption by the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) via Resolution 79/243.
  3. The framework is serviced and supported by the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The UN Convention against Cybercrime is recognized as the first universal legally binding framework dedicated entirely to combating cyber-dependent and cyber-enabled crimes. It was adopted by the UN General Assembly on 24 December 2024 through Resolution 79/243.


Statement 2 is incorrect: The treaty has not yet entered into force. According to its provisions, it requires ratification, acceptance, approval, or accession by at least 40 member states. It will formally enter into force 90 days after the 40th instrument of ratification is deposited with the UN Secretary-General.


Statement 3 is correct: The operational framework and secretariat support for implementing and facilitating international cooperation under this convention are managed by the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC).


                            

Q6:

 

With reference to India’s recent engagement with the United Nations Convention against Cybercrime, consider the following statements:

  1. India has become a full State Party to the Convention after completing domestic ratification in September 2026.
  2. The convention aims to facilitate real-time sharing of electronic evidence and establish a 24/7 international cooperation network among member states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 only

B: 2 only

C: Both 1 and 2

D: None

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar signed the convention on 25 September 2026 at the UN Headquarters. By signing, India is currently a signatory and not yet a fully ratified "State Party". Ratification requires separate internal legislative/executive procedures and formal deposition of the ratification instrument.


Statement 2 is correct: A core pillar of the convention is streamlining cross-border law enforcement. It builds mechanisms for sharing electronic evidence for serious ICT crimes and sets up a continuous 24/7 network to boost international cooperation against rapid digital threats.


                            
Aliganj Gomti Nagar Prayagraj