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Daily-mcqs 28 Oct 2026

Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams 28 Oct 2026

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Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams

Q1:

Consider the following statements regarding the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023, and its interface with fundamental rights:

  1. The DPDP Act, 2023, provides an explicit and blanket exemption for personal data processed solely for journalistic purposes to protect freedom of the press.
  2. Section 44(3) of the DPDP Act, 2023, amends the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, by expanding the scope of exemptions related to personal information held by public authorities.
  3. Any state restriction on informational privacy or freedom of speech under the data protection regime must strictly satisfy the "Principle of Proportionality" as laid down in the K.S. Puttaswamy judgment.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 2 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The primary grievance of the Digital News Publishers Association (DNPA) before the Supreme Court is the absence of a specific journalistic exemption in the DPDP Act, 2023. Unlike data protection laws in some other jurisdictions (like the EU's GDPR), the Indian DPDP Act does not carve out a blanket exemption for data processed for journalistic activities, meaning notice, prior consent, and data-erasure requirements technically apply to news-gathering, which petitioners argue could severely hamper investigative journalism.


Statement 2 is correct: Section 44(3) of the DPDP Act, 2023, amends Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act, 2005. Previously, personal information could be disclosed if it had a relationship to public activity or interest. The amendment tightens this by creating a broader prohibition on the disclosure of personal data held by public authorities, raising serious concerns among RTI activists regarding transparency and public accountability.


Statement 3 is correct: In K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017), the Supreme Court ruled that the Right to Privacy is a fundamental right under Article 21. It established that any state action infringing upon privacy must satisfy a three-fold test: legality (existence of a law), legitimate state aim, and proportionality (a rational nexus between the object and the means adopted, ensuring the least intrusive measure is used).


                            

Q2:

With reference to the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023, consider the following statements:

  1. Section 36 of the Act empowers the Central Government to call for information from Data Fiduciaries and intermediaries.
  2. The Act establishes the Data Protection Board of India (DPBI) as a constitutional body to adjudicate non-compliance and levy penalties.
  3. The right to data erasure (right to be forgotten) under the Act allows individuals to demand the deletion of their personal data, which petitioners argue could be misused to eliminate evidence of corporate or public misconduct.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Section 36 of the DPDP Act, 2023, grants the Central Government the power to requisition information from Data Fiduciaries (organisations determining the purpose of data processing) and intermediaries. This provision, read with the DPDP Rules, has been challenged for giving excessively broad powers to the state without adequate procedural safeguards, potentially compromising confidential journalistic sources.


Statement 2 is incorrect: The Data Protection Board of India (DPBI) is established under the Act as a statutory body, not a constitutional body. Constitutional bodies are specifically provided for by the Constitution of India itself.


Statement 3 is correct: The DPDP Act introduces rights for data principals, including the right to correction and erasure of personal data. Media associations argue that without journalistic safeguards, public officials or corporations under investigation could invoke these erasure mandates to force digital platforms or publishers to delete public-interest data, acting as a "chilling effect" on whistleblowing and investigative reporting.


                            

Q3:

Consider the following statements regarding Osbeckia assamensis, which was recently in the news:

  1. It is an annual herbaceous plant belonging to the family Orchidaceae.
  2. It produces pink flowers in clusters and its flowering and fruiting period extends from September to February.
  3. The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has classified it as "Data Deficient" (DD).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Osbeckia assamensis is not an annual herbaceous plant or part of the Orchidaceae family. It is a perennial shrub growing about 2–2.5 metres tall that belongs to the family Melastomataceae (order Myrtales).


Statement 2 is correct: The species produces vibrant pink flowers measuring 3–3.5 cm, with roughly 30–35 flowers packed into each inflorescence. Its seasonal cycle of flowering and fruiting spans from September to February.


Statement 3 is correct: Because the species is currently known only from its type locality in Manas National Park and lacks sufficient data to evaluate its risk of extinction, researchers have categorized it as Data Deficient (DD) under IUCN criteria.


                            

Q4:

With reference to Manas National Park in Assam, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site that shares an international border with Bhutan.
  2. The Manas River flowing through the park is a direct tributary of the Barak River.
  3. It is recognized both as a tiger reserve and an elephant reserve, supporting flagship species like the golden langur.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Manas National Park is situated in Assam along the foothills of the eastern Himalayas, directly bordering Bhutan. It was inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1985.


Statement 2 is incorrect: The Manas River flowing through the national park is a major tributary of the Brahmaputra River, not the Barak River.


Statement 3 is correct: The park functions as an important core/buffer landscape designated as a Tiger Reserve and an Elephant Reserve, and it harbors rare and endangered fauna such as the Indian rhinoceros, Asian elephant, Bengal tiger, and the endemic golden langur.


                            

Q5:

Consider the following statements regarding the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India:

  1. The CEC can be removed from office only in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
  2. The other Election Commissioners enjoy the exact same constitutional removal safeguards as the CEC.
  3. Under the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023, decisions of the multi-member Election Commission in case of a difference of opinion are decided by a majority vote.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 324(5) of the Constitution, the CEC enjoys removal safeguards akin to a Supreme Court judge, requiring a parliamentary address by a special majority.


Statement 2 is incorrect: Other Election Commissioners can be removed upon the CEC's recommendation, lacking the CEC's independent impeachment safeguard.


Statement 3 is correct: Section 18 of the 2023 Act mandates that differences of opinion within the multi-member body are resolved by majority vote.


                            
Aliganj Gomti Nagar Prayagraj