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Daily-mcqs 26 Sep 2026
Q1:
Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India (ECI): Which of the statements given above are correct?
A: 1 and 2 only
B: 2 only
C: 2 and 3 only
D: 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 324(5) of the Constitution of India, the Chief Election Commissioner is provided with security of tenure. The provision states that the CEC cannot be removed from office except in "like manner and on the like grounds" as a Judge of the Supreme Court. According to Article 124(4), the grounds for such removal are limited strictly to proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution explicitly draws a distinction between the security of tenure of the CEC and other Election Commissioners. An ordinary Election Commissioner or Regional Commissioner cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner. This safeguard is designed to ensure they can function independently without fearing arbitrary removal by the executive, though their protection is less rigid than that of the CEC.
Statement 3 is incorrect: A motion seeking the removal of the CEC can be initiated in either House of Parliament (not exclusively the Lok Sabha). The procedural framework mandates that the notice of the motion must be signed by at least 100 members in the case of the Lok Sabha OR at least 50 members in the case of the Rajya Sabha.
Q2:
With reference to the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023, and constitutional provisions, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A: 1 only
B: 2 only
C: Both 1 and 2
D: None
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Under the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023, the President appoints the CEC and ECs based on the recommendations of a three-member Selection Committee. This committee comprises the Prime Minister (as Chairperson), the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha (as Member), and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister (as Member). The Chief Justice of India is not a member of this selection panel under the 2023 statutory framework.
Statement 2 is correct: Because the CEC's removal mirrors that of a Supreme Court judge, the motion must navigate a stringent parliamentary threshold. To succeed, the removal motion must be passed by each House of Parliament by a Special Majority. This requires:
Q3:
With reference to the "Enemy State" clauses in the United Nations (UN) Charter, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A: 1 and 2 only
B: 2 only
C: 2 and 3 only
D: 1, 2, and 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Under Article 53 of the UN Charter, an "enemy state" is formally defined as any state which during the Second World War has been an enemy of any signatory to the present Charter. It does not explicitly list or limit the definition to the phrase "Axis Powers" by name, though it practically applied to them.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 53 contains a specific exception regarding enforcement actions, allowing actions to be taken against an enemy state without the standard prerequisite of UN Security Council authorization to prevent a resurgence of militarism.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The UN General Assembly formally recognized in 1995 that the enemy-state clauses had become obsolete. Furthermore, the 2005 World Summit Outcome explicitly resolved to delete references to enemy states from Articles 53, 77, and 107.
Q4:
Consider the following statements regarding the amendment procedure of the UN Charter and the removal of Enemy State clauses: Which of the statements given above are correct?
A: 1 only
B: 2 only
C: Both 1 and 2
D: None
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 108 of the UN Charter, amendments must be adopted by a two-thirds majority of the UNGA and subsequently ratified by two-thirds of the UN member states.
Statement 2 is correct: The ratification process explicitly requires the approval of all permanent members of the Security Council (P5). If even one permanent member fails to ratify, the amendment cannot enter into force, effectively giving them a decisive veto over Charter reforms.
Q5:
Consider the following statements regarding the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI): Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A: 1 and 2 only
B: 1 and 3 only
C: 2 and 3 only
D: 1, 2, and 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: FSSAI is a statutory autonomous body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, which consolidated various older laws like the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
Statement 2 is incorrect: FSSAI functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India, not the Ministry of Agriculture.
Statement 3 is correct: One of FSSAI's core statutory functions is laying down science-based standards for food manufacturing, storage, distribution, sale, and import to ensure safety.