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Daily-mcqs 26 Sep 2026

Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams 26 Sep 2026

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Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams

Q1:

Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India (ECI):

  1. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) enjoys identical constitutional protection against removal as a Judge of the Supreme Court of India.
  2. Other Election Commissioners cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
  3. A motion seeking the removal of the Chief Election Commissioner can only be initiated in the Lok Sabha with the support of at least 100 members.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 2 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 324(5) of the Constitution of India, the Chief Election Commissioner is provided with security of tenure. The provision states that the CEC cannot be removed from office except in "like manner and on the like grounds" as a Judge of the Supreme Court. According to Article 124(4), the grounds for such removal are limited strictly to proved misbehaviour or incapacity.


Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution explicitly draws a distinction between the security of tenure of the CEC and other Election Commissioners. An ordinary Election Commissioner or Regional Commissioner cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner. This safeguard is designed to ensure they can function independently without fearing arbitrary removal by the executive, though their protection is less rigid than that of the CEC.


Statement 3 is incorrect: A motion seeking the removal of the CEC can be initiated in either House of Parliament (not exclusively the Lok Sabha). The procedural framework mandates that the notice of the motion must be signed by at least 100 members in the case of the Lok Sabha OR at least 50 members in the case of the Rajya Sabha.


                            

Q2:

With reference to the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023, and constitutional provisions, consider the following statements:

  1. The selection committee responsible for recommending the appointment of Election Commissioners consists of the Prime Minister, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and the Chief Justice of India.
  2. The removal motion for the Chief Election Commissioner must be approved in each House of Parliament by a special majority, defined as a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 only

B: 2 only

C: Both 1 and 2

D: None

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Under the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023, the President appoints the CEC and ECs based on the recommendations of a three-member Selection Committee. This committee comprises the Prime Minister (as Chairperson), the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha (as Member), and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister (as Member). The Chief Justice of India is not a member of this selection panel under the 2023 statutory framework.


Statement 2 is correct: Because the CEC's removal mirrors that of a Supreme Court judge, the motion must navigate a stringent parliamentary threshold. To succeed, the removal motion must be passed by each House of Parliament by a Special Majority. This requires:



  1. A majority of the total membership of the House (absolute majority), AND

  2. A majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting during the session.
    Following this successful legislative backing, the final order of removal is executed by the President of India.


                            

Q3:

With reference to the "Enemy State" clauses in the United Nations (UN) Charter, consider the following statements:

  1. Under the UN Charter, an "enemy state" is explicitly defined as any country that belonged to the Axis Powers during World War II.
  2. Article 53 of the Charter allows for enforcement actions against an enemy state without prior authorization from the UN Security Council.
  3. The UN General Assembly (UNGA) has never formally recognized these clauses as obsolete or expressed an intention to delete them.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 2 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Under Article 53 of the UN Charter, an "enemy state" is formally defined as any state which during the Second World War has been an enemy of any signatory to the present Charter. It does not explicitly list or limit the definition to the phrase "Axis Powers" by name, though it practically applied to them.


Statement 2 is correct: Article 53 contains a specific exception regarding enforcement actions, allowing actions to be taken against an enemy state without the standard prerequisite of UN Security Council authorization to prevent a resurgence of militarism.


Statement 3 is incorrect: The UN General Assembly formally recognized in 1995 that the enemy-state clauses had become obsolete. Furthermore, the 2005 World Summit Outcome explicitly resolved to delete references to enemy states from Articles 53, 77, and 107.


                            

Q4:

Consider the following statements regarding the amendment procedure of the UN Charter and the removal of Enemy State clauses:

  1. Amending the UN Charter under Article 108 requires a two-thirds majority vote in the General Assembly followed by ratification from two-thirds of all UN members.
  2. Any permanent member of the UN Security Council can single-handedly block an amendment from taking effect by withholding ratification.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A: 1 only

B: 2 only

C: Both 1 and 2

D: None

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 108 of the UN Charter, amendments must be adopted by a two-thirds majority of the UNGA and subsequently ratified by two-thirds of the UN member states.


Statement 2 is correct: The ratification process explicitly requires the approval of all permanent members of the Security Council (P5). If even one permanent member fails to ratify, the amendment cannot enter into force, effectively giving them a decisive veto over Charter reforms.


                            

Q5:

Consider the following statements regarding the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI):

  1. It is a statutory body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.
  2. It operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
  3. It is mandated to lay down science-based standards for articles of food.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: FSSAI is a statutory autonomous body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, which consolidated various older laws like the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.


Statement 2 is incorrect: FSSAI functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India, not the Ministry of Agriculture.


Statement 3 is correct: One of FSSAI's core statutory functions is laying down science-based standards for food manufacturing, storage, distribution, sale, and import to ensure safety.


                            
Aliganj Gomti Nagar Prayagraj