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Daily-mcqs 26 Feb 2026

Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams 26 Feb 2026

Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams

Q1:

With reference to the renaming of a State in India, consider the following statements:

1.   The power to alter the name of a State rests with Parliament under Article 3 of the Constitution.

2.   The concerned State Legislature’s opinion on the Bill is binding on Parliament.

3.   A Constitutional Amendment under Article 368 is required to change the name of a State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 only

B: 2 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Show

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct
Constitution of India under Article 3 empowers Parliament to form new states, alter boundaries, and change the name of existing states.

Statement 2 – Incorrect
The State Legislature’s views are not binding. Parliament may accept or reject them.

Statement 3 – Incorrect
No Constitutional Amendment under Article 368 is required.
The change is made through a simple majority law, followed by consequential amendments in the First and Fourth Schedules (as per Article 4).

Q2:

Consider the following steps in the process of renaming a State:

1.   Presidential Recommendation

2.   Introduction of the Bill in Parliament

3.   Reference of the Bill to the concerned State Legislature

4.   Passage of Resolution by the State Legislature

Which of the following is the correct sequence?

A: 4 – 1 – 3 – 2

B: 4 – 3 – 1 – 2

C: 1 – 4 – 3 – 2

D: 3 – 4 – 1 – 2

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Answer: A

Explanation:

Correct order under Article 3:

The State Legislature passes a resolution (political convention, though not mandatory under the Constitution).

The President recommends the introduction of the Bill.

The Bill is referred to the State Legislature for its views.

The Bill is introduced and passed in Parliament by a simple majority.

Q3:

With reference to Section 69A of the Information Technology Act, 2000, consider the following statements:

1.   It empowers the Central Government to block public access to online content in the interest of sovereignty, integrity, defence, security of the State, public order or decency.

2.   Orders under Section 69A can be issued only after prior approval of the Supreme Court.

3.   The provision was upheld as constitutionally valid by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Show

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct
Section 69A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 allows the Central Government to direct intermediaries/ISPs to block content in specified interests such as sovereignty, integrity, defence, security, public order, or decency.

Statement 2 – Incorrect
No prior approval of the Supreme Court is required. Blocking is done through executive procedure as per prescribed rules.

Statement 3 – Correct
In Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of Section 69A while striking down Section 66A.

Q4:

Consider the following statements regarding “safe harbour” protection in India:

1.   It is provided under Section 79 of the IT Act, 2000.

2.   Intermediaries lose safe harbour protection if they fail to comply with government directions under Section 69A.

3.   Safe harbour grants absolute immunity from all civil and criminal liability.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 2 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Show

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct
Section 79 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 provides safe harbour protection to intermediaries for third-party content.

Statement 2 – Correct
Non-compliance with government blocking orders or due diligence requirements may lead to loss of safe harbour protection.

Statement 3 – Incorrect
Safe harbour is conditional, not absolute. It applies only if intermediaries follow due diligence norms.

Q5:

With reference to the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021, consider the following statements:

1.   They provide for a three-tier grievance self-regulatory mechanism for OTT platforms.

2.   They mandate age-based classification of digital content.

3.   They require complete pre-censorship of OTT content by the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 2 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Show

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct
The Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 establish a three-tier self-regulatory mechanism:

Level I: Self-regulation by the publisher

Level II: Self-regulating body

Level III: Oversight by the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting

Statement 2 – Correct
OTT platforms are required to classify content into categories such as U, U/A 7+, U/A 13+, U/A 16+, and A, along with parental locks and age verification mechanisms.

Statement 3 – Incorrect
OTT platforms are not subject to pre-censorship by CBFC. They operate under a self-regulatory framework prescribed by the IT Rules, 2021.