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Daily-mcqs 21 Nov 2025
Q1:
With reference to the Global Methane Status Report released at COP30, consider the following statements: 1. Methane has nearly 50 times more warming potential than CO₂ over a 20-year period. 2. The Global Methane Pledge aims to reduce methane emissions by 30% from 2020 levels by 2030. 3. The report highlights that the world is currently on track to meet the Global Methane Pledge targets. 4. The UNEP and the Climate and Clean Air Coalition jointly prepared the report. Which of the above statements are correct?
A: 1 and 2 only
B: 2 and 4 only
C: 2 ,3 and 4 only
D: 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 – Incorrect:
Methane has about 80 times more warming potential than CO₂ over a 20-year period, not 50 times.
Statement 2 – Correct:
The Global Methane Pledge (GMP) targets a 30% reduction in global methane emissions from 2020 levels by 2030.
Statement 3 – Incorrect:
The report explicitly states that the world is “significantly off-track” to achieve the GMP targets.
Statement 4 – Correct:
The UN Environment Programme (UNEP) and the Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) jointly released the Global Methane Status Report.
Q2:
Consider the following regarding the Global Methane Pledge (GMP) and the COP30 ministerial response: 1. The Global Methane Pledge was launched at COP26 by the European Union and the United States. 2. The pledge focuses on reducing methane emissions from sectors such as fossil fuels, agriculture, and waste. 3. A key outcome at COP30 was the call for integration of methane reductions into national climate strategies. 4. India is a signatory to the Global Methane Pledge and has committed to methane cuts by 2030. Which of the above statements are correct?
A: 1 and 2 only
B: 1,2 and 4 only
C: 1, 2 and 3 only
D: 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 – Correct:
The GMP was launched at COP26 in 2021 by the European Union and the United States.
Statement 2 – Correct:
The pledge targets methane reductions from high-impact sectors such as fossil fuels, agriculture, and waste, as methane is heavily emitted in these areas.
Statement 3 – Correct:
COP30 ministerial discussions emphasized integrating methane action into national climate strategies, enhancing accountability and policy coherence.
Statement 4 – Incorrect:
India is not a signatory to the Global Methane Pledge, though it is a major methane emitter and may still benefit from methane-reduction efforts.
Q3:
With reference to the ART (Regulation) Act, 2021 and its implications for transgender persons, consider the following statements: 1. Under the ART Act, both married couples and unmarried couples can legally access Assisted Reproductive Technology services. 2. The ART Act adopts gender-neutral terminology to define eligible ART recipients. 3. The exclusion of transgender persons from ART services has been justified by the government as a matter of policy requiring expert input. Which of the above statements are correct?
A: 1 and 2 only
B: 3 only
C: 1 and 3 only
D: 1, 2, and 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 – Incorrect:
The ART Act does not allow unmarried couples, live-in couples, or queer couples to access ART. Only married infertile couples and single women are eligible.
Statement 2 – Incorrect:
The Act uses gender-specific and heteronormative language, such as “woman” and “commissioning couple,” and does not adopt a gender-neutral framework.
Statement 3 – Correct:
The Union Government argued before the Kerala High Court that transgender inclusion is a policy decision requiring expert evaluation, especially concerning child welfare.
Q4:
With reference to BIRSA 101, India’s first indigenous CRISPR-based gene therapy for Sickle Cell Disease (SCD), consider the following statements: 1. BIRSA 101 was developed by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research – Institute of Genomics & Integrative Biology (CSIR–IGIB). 2. The therapy involves correction of the single-gene mutation responsible for Sickle Cell Disease. 3. One of the key motivations behind developing BIRSA 101 indigenously is to reduce dependence on foreign CRISPR licensing. 4. India is the first country in the world to develop a CRISPR-based therapy for SCD. How many of the above statements are correct?
A: Only one
B: Only two
C: Only three
D: All four
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 – Correct:
BIRSA 101 has been developed at CSIR–IGIB, a premier genomics institute under CSIR.
Statement 2 – Correct:
Sickle Cell Disease is a single-gene disorder (HBB gene mutation), and CRISPR-based therapies aim to correct or modify this gene or related pathways (e.g., inducing fetal hemoglobin). Thus, BIRSA 101 targets this genetic defect.
Statement 3 – Correct:
A major reason for developing the therapy indigenously is the huge cost of foreign CRISPR licensing and imported platforms, making global therapies unaffordable (₹20–25 crore per patient).
Statement 4 – Incorrect:
India is not the first country to develop CRISPR-based SCD therapy. The U.S. and U.K. have already approved CRISPR-based SCD therapies (e.g., exa-cel).
Thus, India becomes a significant but not the first player.
Q5:
With reference to CRISPR (Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats) gene-editing technology, consider the following statements: 1. CRISPR uses a guide RNA to direct a DNA-cutting enzyme, such as Cas9, to a specific genomic location. 2. The Cas9 enzyme can only deactivate genes but cannot insert new DNA sequences. 3. CRISPR has applications in gene therapy, cancer treatment, diagnostics, and research. 4. CRISPR technology is derived from a natural bacterial defense system. Which of the above statements are correct?
A: 1 and 2 only
B: 1,3 and 4 only
C: 1, 2 and 3 only
D: 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 – Correct:
CRISPR relies on a guide RNA to direct the Cas9 (or similar) enzyme to a precise location in the genome, where it can cut the DNA.
Statement 2 – Incorrect:
CRISPR can both deactivate genes (by causing errors) and insert new or corrected DNA sequences.
Statement 3 – Correct:
Key applications include:
Statement 4 – Correct:
CRISPR is adapted from a natural bacterial defense mechanism against viruses.
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