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Daily-mcqs 19 Sep 2026

Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams 19 Sep 2026

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Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams

Q1:

Consider the following statements regarding Leopardus tilcayo, recently seen in the news:

  1. It is a newly identified wild cat species native to the cloud forests of Bolivia.
  2. It belongs to the genus Leopardus and is larger in size and weight than an average domestic cat.
  3. Its evolutionary lineage diverged from other related tiger cats roughly 1.4 million years ago.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Scientists have formally identified Leopardus tilcayo as a new wild cat species in Bolivia’s lush mountainous Yungas cloud forests. This marks the first living cat species to be formally described in over a century.


Statement 2 is incorrect: The Tilcayo is a tiny wild cat measuring approximately 46 centimetres long and weighing around 1.4 to 2 kilograms (about 3 to 4 pounds). This makes it smaller than an average domestic cat, not larger.


Statement 3 is correct: Through genetic and genomic analyses, researchers confirmed that Leopardus tilcayo represents a distinct evolutionary lineage that diverged from other related South American tiger cats approximately 1.4 million years ago.


                            

Q2:

Consider the following statements regarding the Third BIMSTEC Conference on Traditional Medicine Knowledge, Genetic Resources and Intellectual Property Rights:

  1. It concluded in Goa and was organized by the Ministry of Ayush, Government of India.
  2. Only select South Asian member nations of BIMSTEC participated in the deliberations.
  3. The conference resulted in the 'Goa Conclusions', focusing on key areas like institutional policy cooperation, standards, and trade.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 2 only

C: 1 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The two-day conference concluded in Goa on 17 September 2026. It was organized by the Ministry of Ayush, Government of India, with the All India Institute of Ayurveda (AIIA), Goa, acting as the nodal institute.


Statement 2 is incorrect: Representatives and experts from all seven BIMSTEC member states (Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand) participated in the conference, not just select countries.


Statement 3 is correct: The Second BIMSTEC Nodal Group Meeting held alongside the conference deliberated on four key areas of cooperation. This led to the consensus known as the 'Goa Conclusions', providing a roadmap for regional cooperation in traditional knowledge, trade, and standards.


                            

Q3:

With reference to the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC), consider the following statements:

  1. BIMSTEC was established through the Bangkok Declaration in 1997.
  2. It serves as a strategic bridge linking India’s "Neighbourhood First" policy with its "Act East" policy.
  3. The WHO Global Centre for Traditional Medicine is located at Dhaka, Bangladesh, serving as the headquarters for regional health protocols.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 2 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: BIMSTEC was founded on 6 June 1997 through the adoption of the Bangkok Declaration. Its permanent secretariat is located in Dhaka, Bangladesh.


Statement 2 is correct: Geographically and strategically, BIMSTEC bridges South Asia and Southeast Asia. For India, it acts as a vital overlapping platform that synergizes the "Neighbourhood First" initiative with the "Act East" policy, complemented by cross-border connectivity projects like the Kaladan Project and the India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway.


Statement 3 is incorrect: The WHO Global Centre for Traditional Medicine is established in Jamnagar, Gujarat (India), not in Dhaka, Bangladesh. Dhaka serves as the headquarters of BIMSTEC itself, not the WHO traditional medicine center.


                            

Q4:

With reference to the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, consider the following statements:

  1. Under Paragraph 15 of the Order, the Election Commission of India (ECI) is the sole authority to decide disputes among rival sections or splinter groups of a recognized political party claiming to be that party.
  2. The decision of the Election Commission of India regarding the allocation of symbols and party names in a dispute is interim and must be validated by the Supreme Court of India within six months.
  3. In case of an interim freeze on a party symbol, the rival factions are barred from using the original symbol and must choose from a list of 'free' symbols provided by the ECI.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Under Paragraph 15 of the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, the Election Commission of India (ECI) has the exclusive power to decide issues concerning splits or mergers of a recognized political party. It is the sole adjudicating authority in such organizational disputes.


Statement 2 is incorrect:  The decisions rendered by the ECI under Paragraph 15 are binding and final, subject only to judicial review by High Courts or the Supreme Court via a writ petition or special leave petition. There is no requirement for automatic validation by the Supreme Court within six months.


Statement 3 is correct: When an emergency or a critical election forces the ECI to place an interim freeze on a symbol to ensure a level playing field, neither faction is permitted to use the original name or symbol. They must propose alternative names and pick available options from the ECI’s list of "free symbols."


                            

Q5:

Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India (ECI):

  1. Article 324 vests the ECI with the superintendence, direction, and control of elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and local bodies like Panchayats and Municipalities.
  2. Article 325 prohibits discrimination against any eligible citizen for inclusion in electoral rolls on the grounds of religion, race, caste, or sex.
  3. Article 329 bars courts from interfering in electoral matters and mandates that election challenges must be presented via an election petition to a designated authority.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 2 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 324 covers elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President of India. It does not deal with elections to Panchayats and Municipalities in the states. Local body elections are superintended, directed, and controlled by separate State Election Commissions established under Articles 243K and 243ZA.


Statement 2 is correct: Article 325 explicitly states that no person can be ineligible for inclusion in, or claim a special electoral roll to be included in, any electoral roll on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, or any of them.


Statement 3 is correct: Article 329 bars the interference of courts in electoral matters, specifying that elections to either House of Parliament or a State Legislature can only be challenged via an election petition presented to such authority and in such manner as provided by an appropriate legislature.


                            

Q6:

With reference to the structure, tenure, and removal of members of the Election Commission of India, consider the following statements:

  1. The Constitution fixes the number of Election Commissioners permanently, making it a mandatory multi-member body from its inception in 1950.
  2. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and other Election Commissioners have equal powers, equal salaries, and equal voting rights in decision-making.
  3. Both the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners can be removed from office only through the process of impeachment by Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 2 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution does not fix the strength of the ECI permanently. Under Article 324(2), it consists of the CEC and such number of other Election Commissioners, if any, as the President may fix from time to time. Originally it was a single-member body, and it became a multi-member body later.


Statement 2 is correct: When a multi-member setup is active, the CEC and other Election Commissioners operate on equal footing, holding identical decision-making and voting powers, with differences of opinion resolved via a collective majority vote. They also draw salaries equivalent to a judge of the Supreme Court.


Statement 3 is incorrect: Only the CEC enjoys security of tenure and can be removed via impeachment by Parliament (similar to a Supreme Court judge). Other Election Commissioners do not have identical removal protection; they can be removed by the President upon the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.


                            
Aliganj Gomti Nagar Prayagraj