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Daily-mcqs 16 Jul 2026

Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams 16 Jul 2026

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Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams

Q1:

Consider the following statements regarding the 'Trial in Absentia' provision under Section 356 of the BNSS, 2023:

  1. It is applicable to all cognizable and non-bailable offences.
  2. The trial can commence immediately after the accused is declared a Proclaimed Offender.
  3. The court is mandated to appoint a State-funded Defence Counsel if the absconding accused lacks legal representation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect because the provision is restricted to serious offences that carry a punishment of imprisonment of 10 years or more, life imprisonment, or the death penalty.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The trial can begin only after 90 days from the date of framing of charges.
Statement 3 is correct. Section 356 dictates that if the accused does not have legal representation, the court must appoint a State-funded Defence Counsel to ensure a fair trial.


                            

Q2:

Consider the following statements regarding the herbicide Paraquat:

  1. Paraquat dichloride is a systemic herbicide that travels through the vascular system of the plant.
  2. There is currently no known medical antidote for paraquat poisoning.
  3. It destroys plant tissues by generating free radicals that interrupt photosynthesis.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 2 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Paraquat dichloride is a contact herbicide (not systemic), meaning it destroys only the green plant tissues that it directly comes into contact with. Because it is non-selective, it kills whatever plant parts it touches, acting rapidly upon impact.


Statement 2 is correct: One of the primary reasons cited by medical experts for a nationwide ban is that paraquat poisoning has no known antidote. Even small quantities can lead to multiple organ failure and death.


Statement 3 is correct: Paraquat damages plant tissues by creating free radicals that disrupt cell membranes and quickly interrupt the process of photosynthesis.


                            

Q3:

With reference to the regulatory framework for agrochemicals in India, consider the following statements:

  1. Under the existing Insecticides Act, 1968, state governments have the statutory power to completely and permanently ban any hazardous pesticide across their territories.
  2. All herbicides marketed in India must be registered with the Central Insecticides Board and Registration Committee (CIB&RC).
  3. The proposed Draft Pesticides Management Bill (PMB), 2025 seeks to replace the Insecticides Act, 1968.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Under the current Insecticides Act, 1968, state governments can temporarily suspend or restrict the sale and use of hazardous chemicals to protect public health. However, they lack the legal authority to impose permanent, nationwide bans or make independent long-term prohibitions without central review.


Statement 2 is correct: The regulation of agrochemicals in India mandates that every pesticide must be officially registered with the Central Insecticides Board and Registration Committee (CIB&RC) before it can be legally imported, manufactured, or marketed.


Statement 3 is correct: To modernize the regulatory framework, the government has proposed the Draft Pesticides Management Bill (PMB), 2025 to replace the nearly six-decade-old Insecticides Act, 1968. The new bill aims to introduce digital traceability, stricter monitoring, and mandatory reporting of pesticide poisoning cases.


                            

Q4:

With reference to the recently enforced India–U.K. Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA), consider the following statements:

  1. The United Kingdom will immediately eliminate tariffs on nearly all of India's exports, covering approximately 97% of the trade value.
  2. It establishes India's first dedicated gender chapter in an FTA to support women entrepreneurs.
  3. The agreement completely eliminates India's tariffs across all sectors, including sensitive Make in India initiatives.
  4. It is accompanied by a Double Contribution Convention (DCC) to exempt Indian workers from U.K. social security payments for a specified period.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1,3 and 4 only

C: 1, 2 and 4 only

D: 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct:
Under the CETA, the United Kingdom has immediately eliminated tariffs on 96.8% of tariff lines, covering approximately 97.7% of India's trade value. This will significantly enhance market access for Indian exports, particularly agricultural products, textiles, and engineering goods.


Statement 2 – Correct:
The agreement is a forward-looking and gold-standard Free Trade Agreement (FTA) that, for the first time, includes a dedicated Gender Chapter to support women entrepreneurs. Its objective is to promote the participation of women in global value chains.


Statement 3 – Incorrect:
Under the agreement, India will gradually reduce tariffs on a large share of its imports. However, necessary protections have been retained for sensitive sectors associated with the Make in India initiative. Therefore, tariffs have not been completely eliminated across all sectors.


Statement 4 – Correct:
The agreement is accompanied by the Double Contribution Convention (DCC), under which Indian professionals and workers contributing to India's social security system will be exempt from making social security contributions in the U.K. for a specified period. This provision is expected to benefit more than 75,000 Indian professionals.


                            

Q5:

Consider the following provisions introduced under the India–U.K. Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA):

  1. Implementation of Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) and Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT) cooperation to reduce non-tariff barriers.
  2. Treaty-backed access for U.K. companies to a portion of India's central government procurement market.
  3. Total deregulation of intellectual property rights, allowing unrestricted generic pharmaceutical manufacturing.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct:
The CETA includes mechanisms for cooperation on Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) measures and Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT) to reduce non-tariff barriers. This will lower the risk of rejection of Indian agricultural and marine product exports and facilitate easier access to the U.K. market.


Statement 2 – Correct:
Under this trade agreement, India has, for the first time, granted eligible U.K. companies treaty-backed access to a limited portion of its central government procurement market. This access will be available in sectors such as green energy, transport, and infrastructure, provided the companies meet the prescribed local content requirements.


Statement 3 – Incorrect:
Although the agreement facilitates greater access to generic medicines and medical devices, it does not provide for the complete deregulation of intellectual property rights (IPR). Instead, IP protections are retained and regulated within a balanced framework aimed at strengthening technological and economic cooperation between the two countries.


                            
Aliganj Gomti Nagar Prayagraj