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Daily-mcqs 09 Jun 2026

Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams 09 Jun 2026

Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams

Q1:

Consider the following statements about the PM E-DRIVE (Prime Minister Electric Drive Revolution in Innovative Vehicle Enhancement) Scheme:

It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme implemented by the Ministry of Heavy Industries.

It features an e-Voucher system for Aadhaar-authenticated digital subsidy disbursement to ensure transparency.

The scheme provides incentives for the procurement of electric buses as well as electric trucks linked to the scrapping of old diesel vehicles.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Show

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The PM E-DRIVE Scheme is a Central Sector Scheme, not a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. In a Central Sector Scheme, the entire funding is borne by the Government of India. It is implemented by the Ministry of Heavy Industries. [

Statement 2 is correct: To promote transparency and prevent the misuse of subsidies, the scheme introduces an e-Voucher system. These are Aadhaar-authenticated digital vouchers used to disburse demand incentives directly.

Statement 3 is correct: The scheme supports the deployment of over 14,000 electric buses in major cities. It also incentivizes electric trucks up to ₹9.6 lakh per vehicle, provided the incentive is linked to the scrapping of old diesel trucks.

Q2:

Consider the following statements regarding the ordinance-making power and recent developments in the Supreme Court:

Under Article 124(1) of the Indian Constitution, the power to determine the number of judges in the Supreme Court is vested exclusively in the Parliament.

Through the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Ordinance, 2026, the sanctioned strength of the Supreme Court has been increased from 34 to 38.

Under Article 123, an Ordinance promulgated by the President has the same force and effect as a Parliament-passed law, but it automatically expires if not approved within six weeks of the Parliament reassembling.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Show

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Article 124(1) of the Indian Constitution provides that there shall be a Supreme Court of India consisting of a Chief Justice of India and until Parliament by law prescribes a larger number, of not more than seven other judges. This gives the Parliament full authority to regulate and determine the number of judges in the Supreme Court. It exercises this power through the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956.

Statement 2 is correct: The President of India promulgated the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Ordinance, 2026. This amended Section 2 of the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956, to increase the sanctioned strength of the Supreme Court from 34 judges to 38 judges (including the Chief Justice of India).

Statement 3 is correct: Article 123 of the Constitution empowers the President to promulgate Ordinances during the recess of Parliament when immediate action is required. Such Ordinances have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament but are temporary. They must be placed before both Houses of Parliament and will cease to operate six weeks after Parliament reassembles unless approved by both Houses before that period.

Q3:

Consider the following statements regarding the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India:

It has the exclusive authority to hear disputes between the Government of India and one or more states.

Any dispute arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement, or covenant falls under this jurisdiction.

Disputes relating to inter-State water disputes are excluded from its original jurisdiction.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Show

Answer: B

Explanation:

Under Article 131 of the Constitution of India, the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court extends to disputes between the Centre and one or more States, or between different States.

Statement 1: Correct

The Supreme Court has exclusive jurisdiction to adjudicate disputes between the Union Government and one or more States.

Statement 2: Incorrect

Disputes arising out of any treaty, agreement, or covenant made before the commencement of the Constitution are not included under this jurisdiction. Such matters are explicitly excluded from the Supreme Court’s original jurisdiction.

Statement 3: Correct

Under Article 262, disputes relating to inter-State river waters are excluded from the Supreme Court’s jurisdiction. These disputes are instead resolved through tribunals constituted by Parliament.

Q4:

Consider the following statements regarding the 8th India-Indonesia Joint Commission Meeting (JCM):

The meeting was co-chaired by the External Affairs Minister of India and the Foreign Minister of Indonesia.

Both nations share a maritime boundary that spans roughly 300 nautical miles.

Garuda Shakti and Samudra Shakti are joint military and maritime exercises conducted between India and Indonesia.

Indonesia was the Chief Guest for India's Republic Day in 2025.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1,3 and 4 only

C: 2 ,3 and 4 only

D: 1, 2, 3 and 4

Show

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The 8th JCM was co-chaired by India’s External Affairs Minister, Dr. S. Jaishankar, and Indonesia’s Foreign Minister, Sugiono.

Statement 2 is correct: India and Indonesia share a maritime boundary, which is nearly 300 nautical miles in length, delimiting the overlapping entitlements between India’s Nicobar Islands and Indonesia’s Sumatra Island.

Statement 3 is correct: Defence and security cooperation are pillars of the India-Indonesia strategic partnership. Joint exercises include Samudra Shakti (naval exercise) and Garuda Shakti (army exercise).

Statement 4 is correct: Strengthening people-to-people and leadership links is a vital goal. Indonesian President Prabowo Subianto visited New Delhi as the Chief Guest for India’s 76th Republic Day in 2025.

Q5:

Consider the following statements regarding the Food Safety and Standards (Vegan Foods) Regulations:

A food product can be labeled as vegan if it contains trace amounts of milk derivatives, provided the dairy content is less than 1%.

The definition of vegan food under FSSAI regulations explicitly prohibits the use of animal-derived processing aids such as bone char.

The newly mandated standardized vegan logo requirements apply only to domestically manufactured vegan products and not to imports.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 2 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Show

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: To qualify as vegan, products must be 100% free from animal-derived ingredients. This prohibits all animal origin (milk, meat, eggs, honey, etc.). There is no permissible threshold for dairy trace allowances in FSSAI's vegan framework.

Statement 2 is correct: The definition of vegan foods under FSSAI regulations is strict. It bars not only primary animal products but also animal-derived additives, flavours, carriers, and processing aids like bone char (often used in sugar refining).

Statement 3 is incorrect: The FSSAI mandate applies equally to both domestic manufacturers and imported vegan products sold in India.