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Daily-mcqs 06 Dec 2025

Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams 06 Dec 2025

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Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams

Q1:

With reference to the Supreme Court’s recent ruling on illegal migration, consider the following statements:

1.   Article 19(1)(e) — the right to reside and settle anywhere in India — applies to both citizens and non-citizens.

2.   The Union government has powers under the Foreigners Act, 1946 to detect, detain and deport illegal migrants.

3.   Article 21 provides protection to all persons, including non-citizens.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 2 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 19 rights, including 19(1)(e), are exclusive to citizens. The Supreme Court reaffirmed this.


Statement 2 is correct: Under the Foreigners Act, 1946, the Union government can detect, detain, and deport illegal migrants.


Statement 3 is correct: Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty) applies to all persons, including foreigners and illegal migrants.


                            

Q2:

Consider the following statements regarding India's position in international refugee law:

1.   India is not a signatory to the 1951 UN Refugee Convention or the 1967 Protocol.

2.   India is legally bound by the principle of Non-Refoulement as it is part of customary international law.

3.   India has a comprehensive domestic refugee law that distinguishes refugees from other foreigners.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A: 1 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: India has not signed the Refugee Convention or its Protocol, to maintain policy flexibility.


Statement 2 is incorrect: India recognizes the principle of non-refoulement informally but is not legally bound, as it has not incorporated it into domestic law.


Statement 3 is incorrect: India has no dedicated refugee law. Refugees are treated like other foreigners under general laws.


                            

Q3:

With reference to the recent depreciation of the Indian Rupee, consider the following statements:

1.   A strong US dollar due to tight monetary policy of the US Federal Reserve contributes to rupee weakness.

2.   India’s high crude oil import dependence increases pressure on the rupee during periods of rising oil prices.

3.   A widening Current Account Deficit (CAD) generally strengthens the domestic currency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: USD strengthened due to Fed’s tight monetary policy and global risk aversion → capital flows shift toward US assets→ rupee weakens.


Statement 2 is correct: India imports 85% of its crude, so rising oil prices increase dollar demand → rupee weakens.


Statement 3 is incorrect: A widening CAD shows more imports than exports → currency depreciates, not strengthens.


                            

Q4:

Which of the following are potential benefits of rupee depreciation?

1.   Increased competitiveness of India’s exports

2.   Lower external borrowing cost for Indian corporates

3.   Higher remittance value in rupee terms for receiving households

Options:

A: 1 only

B: 2 only

C: 1 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: C

Explanation:

Benefit 1: Exporters receive more rupees per dollar → enhanced competitiveness.


Benefit 3: Remittances in USD bring more INR to households.


Statement 2 is incorrect: External borrowing becomes costlier when the rupee weakens.


                            

Q5:

With reference to the RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), consider the following statements:

1.   The MPC is responsible for fixing the repo rate to achieve inflation targets.

2.   The MPC consists of 6 members, of which a majority are from the RBI.

3.   Decisions of the MPC are taken by majority vote and the RBI Governor has a casting vote.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The MPC sets policy rates (including repo rate) to achieve inflation targets as per the RBI Act, 1934 (amended 2016).


Statement 2 is incorrect: MPC has 6 members3 from RBI, 3 nominated by Government → equal representation.


Statement 3 is correct: Decisions are by majority vote, and the RBI Governor has a casting vote if there is a tie.


                            

Q6:

The December 2025 MPC meeting reduced the repo rate to 5.25%. Which of the following best explains the primary objective of a repo rate cut?

A: Reducing government fiscal deficit

B: Increasing liquidity and encouraging credit growth

C: Decreasing the value of the rupee to boost exports

D: Raising bank deposit rates to attract savings

Answer: B

Explanation:

A repo rate cut:



  • injects liquidity into the system,

  • lowers borrowing costs,

  • stimulates credit flow and economic growth.


It does not directly target fiscal deficit, rupee devaluation, or deposit rates.