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Daily-mcqs 06 Jul 2026

Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams 06 Jul 2026

Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams

Q1:

With reference to the recent amendment bringing emerging therapies under the Centrally Licensed Approving Authority (CLAA) framework, consider the following statements:

1.   The CLAA functions under the provisions of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 and the Drugs Rules, 1945.

2.   The recent amendment brings stem cell-derived products, gene therapeutic products, and xenografts under the CLAA framework.

3.   The CLAA provides regulatory oversight exclusively through the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO), without any role for State Licensing Authorities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2 and 3

Show

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct:
The Centrally Licensed Approving Authority (CLAA) is a regulatory mechanism established under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 and the Drugs Rules, 1945.

Statement 2 – Correct:
The recent amendment extends the CLAA framework to cover:

Stem cell-derived products

Gene therapeutic products

Xenografts

Statement 3 – Incorrect:
CLAA is based on joint regulatory oversight involving both the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) and State Licensing Authorities, ensuring coordinated regulation.

Q2:

With reference to the Employees' Provident Fund (EPF) Scheme, 2026, consider the following statements:

1.   The EPF Scheme, 2026 has been framed under the Code on Social Security, 2020.

2.   Existing EPF subscribers under the Employees' Provident Funds Scheme, 1952 are required to register afresh under the new scheme.

3.   The mandatory EPF contribution continues to be 12% of wages each by the employer and the employee for most establishments.

4.   The principal employer is responsible for depositing EPF contributions even when workers are employed through contractors who are not independently registered with EPFO.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A: 1, 2 and 3 only

B: 1, 3 and 4 only

C: 1, 2 and 4 only

D: 1, 2, 3 and 4

Show

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct:
The EPF Scheme, 2026 has been notified under the Code on Social Security, 2020, replacing the Employees' Provident Funds Scheme, 1952.

Statement 2 – Incorrect:
Existing EPF subscribers automatically continue as members under the new scheme. No fresh registration is required.

Statement 3 – Correct:
The mandatory contribution remains:

12% of wages each by the employer and employee.

10% for certain notified establishments.

Statement 4 – Correct:
The scheme clearly fixes responsibility on the principal employer for depositing both employer's and employee's EPF contributions, including administrative charges, even where workers are employed through contractors who are not independently registered under EPFO.

Q3:

Consider the following statements regarding the Employees' Provident Fund (EPF) Scheme, 2026:

1.   Partial withdrawals have been consolidated into three broad categories—Essential Needs, Housing Needs, and Special Circumstances.

2.   Members are generally required to retain at least 25% of their accumulated provident fund balance, allowing withdrawal of up to 75% of the eligible balance.

3.   Full withdrawal of the EPF balance is permitted immediately upon unemployment, irrespective of the duration of unemployment.

4.   The Code on Social Security, 2020 extends social security recognition to gig workers and platform workers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A: 1, 2 and 3 only

B: 1, 3 and 4 only

C: 1, 2 and 4 only

D: 1, 2, 3 and 4

Show

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct:
The numerous withdrawal categories under the 1952 Scheme have been simplified into three broad heads:

Essential Needs (illness, education, marriage)

Housing Needs

Special Circumstances

Statement 2 – Correct:
To protect retirement savings, members are generally required to retain at least 25% of their accumulated provident fund balance. Therefore, ordinarily up to 75% of the eligible balance may be withdrawn.

Statement 3 – Incorrect:
Full withdrawal is not permitted immediately upon unemployment. It is generally allowed after one year of unemployment, subject to prescribed conditions.

Statement 4 – Correct:
The Code on Social Security, 2020 expands the scope of social security by recognizing gig workers and platform workers and provides for a Social Security Fund for gig and unorganised workers.

Q4:

With reference to the Battery Management System (BMS) used in electric vehicles, consider the following statements:

1.   A Battery Management System monitors parameters such as battery voltage, current, temperature, and charging cycles.

2.   One of the functions of a BMS is to balance battery cells and prevent overcharging and overheating.

3.   All Battery Management Systems used in electric vehicles are connected to the internet and controlled through cloud-based servers.

4.   Disabling the battery's discharge function through a vulnerable BMS can immediately stop an electric vehicle.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A: 1, 2 and 3 only

B: 1, 3 and 4 only

C: 1, 2 and 4 only

D: 1, 2, 3 and 4

Show

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct:
A Battery Management System (BMS) is an electronic control unit that continuously monitors:

Battery voltage

Current

Temperature

Charging and discharging cycles

Overall battery health

Statement 2 – Correct:
A BMS improves battery safety and efficiency by:

Balancing individual battery cells,

Preventing overcharging and deep discharge,

Preventing overheating,

Extending battery life.

Statement 3 – Incorrect:
Not all BMS units are internet-connected or cloud-controlled. Many low-cost systems rely only on Bluetooth connectivity, while premium EVs often use secure encrypted communication. Internet connectivity is not an essential feature of every BMS.

Statement 4 – Correct:
The reported vulnerability exploited the battery's discharge control. When the discharge circuit is switched off, power to the motor is cut, causing the e-rickshaw to stop immediately.

Q5:

With reference to water security in India, consider the following statements:

1.   Water security refers only to ensuring an adequate supply of water for agriculture and domestic use.

2.   India possesses about 4% of the world's freshwater resources while supporting nearly 18% of the global population.

3.   Per capita annual water availability below 1,000 cubic metres is generally regarded as an indicator of severe water scarcity.

4.   Achieving water security requires efficient water management, conservation, reuse, recycling, and equitable allocation of water resources.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A: 1, 2 and 3 only

B: 1, 3 and 4 only

C: 2, 3 and 4 only

D: 1, 2, 3 and 4

Show

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Incorrect:
Water security is a broader concept than merely ensuring water supply. It includes:

Sustainable availability of safe water,

Protection of ecosystems,

Efficient allocation,

Management of droughts, floods, pollution, and groundwater depletion.

Statement 2 – Correct:
India has only about 4% of global freshwater resources but supports nearly 18% of the world's population, making efficient water management crucial.

Statement 3 – Correct:
A per capita annual water availability of less than 1,000 cubic metres is widely considered to indicate severe water scarcity. The Krishna and Cauvery river basins have already crossed this threshold.