Welcome to Dhyeya IAS Best Coaching for UPSC, IAS,Civil Services, State PSC/PCS Exam

Daily-mcqs 02 Jul 2026

Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams 02 Jul 2026

Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams

Q1:

With reference to Project Cheetah, consider the following statements:

1.       It is the world's first intercontinental translocation of a large wild carnivore.

2.      The project is implemented by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) in collaboration with the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) and State Forest Departments.

3.      The cheetahs introduced under the project have been sourced only from Namibia.

4.     The project is implemented under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) as part of Project Tiger.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A: 1, 2 and 4 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2, 3 and 4 only

D: 1, 2, 3 and 4

Show

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. Project Cheetah is the world's first intercontinental translocation of a large wild carnivore, involving the relocation of African cheetahs to India.

Statement 2 is correct. The project is implemented by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) in collaboration with the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) and State Forest Departments.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Cheetahs have been sourced from multiple African countries—Namibia, South Africa, and Botswana—not only Namibia.

Statement 4 is correct. The project is implemented under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) as part of the broader Project Tiger framework.

Q2:

With reference to temple governance in India, consider the following statements:

1.       Article 25(2) of the Constitution empowers the State to regulate the secular and economic activities associated with religious institutions.

2.      The constitutional basis for state involvement in temple administration lies in the power to regulate secular aspects of religious practice rather than essential religious rituals.

3.      The Religious Endowments Act, 1863, and the Madras Hindu Religious Endowments Act, 1925, contributed to the evolution of state oversight of temple administration.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 2 and 3 only

C: Only 1 and 3

D: 1, 2 and 3

Show

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. Article 25(2) permits the State to regulate or restrict secular, economic, financial, political, or other activities associated with religious practice, while protecting freedom of religion under Article 25(1).

Statement 2 is correct. The Supreme Court has consistently distinguished essential religious practices from secular administrative functions, allowing the State to regulate the latter without infringing religious freedom.

Statement 3 is correct. Colonial legislations such as the Religious Endowments Act, 1863, and the Madras Hindu Religious Endowments Act, 1925, laid the foundation for statutory oversight of temple administration, which several states continued and expanded after Independence.

Q3:

With reference to the Upper Yamuna River Board (UYRB) and the 1994 Upper Yamuna Agreement, consider the following statements:

1.       The Upper Yamuna River Board (UYRB) was established to regulate water allocation, monitor river flows, and coordinate among the basin states.

2.      Uttarakhand became a stakeholder in the Upper Yamuna Basin after its creation in 2000.

3.      The 1994 Agreement allocated 10.4% of the utilisable Yamuna waters to Rajasthan.

4.     The Upper Yamuna River Board is a constitutional body established under Article 262 of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A: 1, 2 and 3 only

B: 1 and 4 only

C: 2, 3 and 4 only

D: 1, 2, 3 and 4

Show

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The Upper Yamuna River Board (UYRB) was constituted to implement the 1994 Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) by regulating water allocation, monitoring river flows, and facilitating coordination among the participating states.

Statement 2 is correct. When Uttarakhand was carved out of Uttar Pradesh in 2000, it became a stakeholder in the Upper Yamuna Basin.

Statement 3 is correct. Under the 1994 Upper Yamuna Agreement, Rajasthan was allocated 10.4% of the utilisable surface waters of the Upper Yamuna.

Statement 4 is incorrect. The UYRB is not a constitutional body. It is an administrative body established under the Ministry of Jal Shakti to implement the 1994 agreement. Article 262 empowers Parliament to legislate on inter-state river water disputes but does not establish the UYRB.

Q4:

With reference to the constitutional and legal framework governing inter-State river water management in India, consider the following statements:

1.       Article 262 empowers Parliament to provide for the adjudication of disputes relating to inter-State rivers.

2.      The Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, was enacted under the provisions of Article 262.

3.      Entry 17 of the State List gives states exclusive authority over all rivers, including inter-State rivers, without any role for the Union.

4.     Entry 56 of the Union List empowers Parliament to regulate and develop inter-State rivers in the public interest.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A: 1, 2 and 4 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2, 3 and 4 only

D: 1, 2, 3 and 4

Show

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. Article 262 empowers Parliament to enact laws for the adjudication of disputes relating to inter-State rivers and river valleys.

Statement 2 is correct. Parliament enacted the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, under Article 262, providing for the establishment of water dispute tribunals.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Entry 17 of the State List gives states jurisdiction over water, subject to Entry 56 of the Union List. Therefore, states do not enjoy exclusive authority over inter-State rivers.

Statement 4 is correct. Entry 56 of the Union List empowers Parliament to regulate and develop inter-State rivers and river valleys in the public interest.

Q5:

With reference to the Delhi EV Policy 2026, consider the following statements:

1.       No new petrol motorcycles and scooters will be registered in Delhi after 31 March 2028.

2.      Registration of new CNG auto-rickshaws will cease after December 2026.

3.      From April 2028, all newly registered two-wheelers, three-wheelers, and private four-wheelers must necessarily be Battery Electric Vehicles (BEVs).

4.     The policy provides scrappage incentives for old BS-IV and older vehicles.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A: 1, 2 and 4 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2, 3 and 4 only

D: 1, 2, 3 and 4

Show

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The Delhi EV Policy 2026 provides that no new petrol motorcycles and scooters will be registered after 31 March 2028.

Statement 2 is correct. The registration of new CNG auto-rickshaws will end after December 2026, with electric three-wheelers replacing them.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The policy mandates that all newly registered two- and three-wheelers must be electric from April 2028. It does not mandate that all newly registered private four-wheelers must be Battery Electric Vehicles.

Statement 4 is correct. The policy includes scrappage incentives for BS-IV and older vehicles to encourage the transition to cleaner mobility.