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Daily-mcqs 29 Mar 2024

Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams 29 Mar 2024

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Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams

Q1:

Consider the following statements:

1. The T+0 settlement cycle allows for the clearing and settlement of trades on the same day.

2. It aims to introduce transparency in investor charges and reinforce risk management.

3. The T+0 settlement cycle operates within a price band of +100 basis points compared to the T+1 cycle.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

A: Only one

B: Only two

C: All three

D: None

Answer: C

Explanation:

Recently, the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) and National Stock Exchange (NSE) have initiated the introduction of an optional T+0 settlement cycle for the equity segment. This beta version rollout encompasses 25 scrips and a limited number of brokers. SEBI proposed the T+0 settlement cycle as an optional addition to the existing T+1 cycle in December of the previous year. This system enables the clearing and settlement of funds and securities on the same day of trading, enhancing transaction efficiency. Hence, statement 1 is correct.


The implementation of the T+0 settlement cycle is expected to bring about cost and time efficiency in transactions. It aims to introduce transparency in investor charges and reinforce risk management within the securities market ecosystem. Hence, statement 2 is correct.


Compliance with guidelines set forth by Market Infrastructure Institutions (MIIs) is a prerequisite for participation. Price bands operate within a range of +100 basis points from the prevailing T+1 market price, with recalibrations occurring after every 50 basis points movement. Hence, statement 3 is correct.


Q2:

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) are an alternative to traditional investment instruments like stocks and mutual funds.

Statement-II:  AIFs attract for high net worth individuals and institutions due to high minimum investment amounts.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation of Statement-I

B: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

C: Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

D: Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: A

Explanation:

Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has modified norms for regulated entities (REs) concerning their investments in Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs). Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) are privately pooled investment vehicles established in India, collecting funds from sophisticated investors for investing in various asset classes. They serve as an alternative to traditional investment instruments and adhere to SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012. Hence, statement I is correct.


Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) can be structured as companies, Limited Liability Partnerships (LLPs), trusts, etc., pooling funds from investors to invest in different categories of assets. They attract sophisticated investors, including institutions and high net worth individuals, due to their high investment requirements and risk profiles. Hence, statement II is correct.


Here, statement-II is the correct explanation of statement-I, therefore, option (a) is correct.


Q3:

Consider the following statements about Kalam-25, recently seen in news:

1. It is a solid rocket booster used in the second stage of Skyroot Aerospace's Vikram-1 launch vehicle.

2. It utilizes a carbon composite structure and Ethylene-Propylene-Diene terpolymers (EPDM) for thermal protection.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 only

B: 2 Only

C: Both 1 and 2

D: Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Recently, Skyroot Aerospace successfully tested stage-2 (Kalam-250) of its Vikram-1 launch vehicle at ISRO's propulsion testbed in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. Kalam-250 is the stage-2 rocket motor of Skyroot Aerospace's Vikram-1 launch vehicle. It plays a critical role in propelling the launch vehicle through Earth's atmosphere into the vacuum of space during ascent. Hence, statement 1 is correct.


This stage employs a high-strength carbon composite rocket motor, along with solid fuel and a sophisticated Ethylene-Propylene-Diene terpolymers Thermal Protection System. Notable features of Kalam-250 include a carbon ablative flex nozzle and precise electro-mechanical actuators, which facilitate thrust vector control of the launch vehicle. The solid propellant utilized in Kalam-250 underwent processing by Solar Industries' unique facility in Nagpur. Hence, statement 2 is also correct.


 


Q4:

With reference to the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA), consider the following statements:

1. AFSPA was initially enacted to grant special powers to the armed forces in Jammu and Kashmir.

2. The Act allows armed forces to arrest individuals without a warrant in "disturbed areas".

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

A: 1 only

B: 2 only

C: Both 1 and 2

D: Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

Recently, the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) extended the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) in parts of Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh for another six months. The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) was enacted in 1958 to grant special powers to the armed forces in "disturbed areas" to maintain public order. It was known initially as the Armed Forces (Assam and Manipur) Special Powers Act, 1958. It is typically enforced in regions facing significant internal security challenges or insurgency, primarily in the Northeastern states and Jammu and Kashmir. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.


Under AFSPA, armed forces personnel have powers to arrest without a warrant, conduct searches and use force, including opening fire if deemed necessary for "the maintenance of public order." The Act provides legal immunity to the armed forces for their actions undertaken in the line of duty, shielding them from prosecution without prior government sanction. The legal validity of AFSPA is based on Entry 2A of the Union List under the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution, which grants the Parliament exclusive powers to legislate on matters related to the armed forces. Hence, statement 2 is correct.


Q5:

Recently, the International Court of Justice (ICJ) ordered Israel to provide urgent humanitarian assistance in Gaza, citing the onset of famine. It was established in June 1945 by the UN Charter and is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). What are the two official languages of the International Court of Justice (ICJ)?

A: Spanish and French

B: English and Chinese

C: English and French

D: Arabic and Russian

Answer: C

Explanation:

Recently, the International Court of Justice (ICJ) ordered Israel to provide urgent humanitarian assistance in Gaza, citing the onset of famine. The International Court of Justice (ICJ), established in June 1945 by the UN Charter and is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). It began functioning in April 1946 and is commonly referred to as the World Court. It resolves legal disputes between states and provides advisory opinions on legal questions referred by authorized UN bodies and specialized agencies. It is composed of 15 judges elected for nine-year terms by the UN General Assembly and the Security Council, the ICJ ensures geographical representation among its members. The official languages of the International Court of Justice are French and English. Hence, option (c) is correct.