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Daily-mcqs 22 Oct 2026

Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams 22 Oct 2026

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Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams

Q1:

Consider the following statements regarding the Aditya-L1 mission and its recent findings:

  1. The Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC) is capable of generating Doppler velocity images of the solar corona from the L1 Lagrange point.
  2. In solar Doppler velocity measurements, a redshift indicates that the solar plasma is moving towards the observer.
  3. Aditya-L1 operates in a low-Earth orbit to maintain a continuous, uninterrupted view of the Sun's disk.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A: Only one

B: Only two

C: All three

D: None

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC) payload onboard Aditya-L1 has generated unique Doppler velocity images of the solar corona. Its spectroscopic observing capability in the visible range from the L1 point allows scientists to track the 3D propagation of coronal mass ejections (CMEs).


Statement 2 is incorrect: In Doppler shift observations of light waves, a redshift indicates that the source (solar plasma) is moving away from the observer, while a blueshift indicates movement towards the observer.


Statement 3 is incorrect: Aditya-L1 does not operate in a low-Earth orbit. It is positioned in a halo orbit around the Sun–Earth Lagrange Point 1 (L1), located approximately 1.5 million kilometres away from Earth, which provides an uninterrupted view of the Sun without eclipses.


                            

Q2:

With reference to Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) and the Sun–Earth Lagrange Point 1 (L1), consider the following statements:

  1. Coronal Mass Ejections are massive expulsions of plasma and magnetic fields primarily originating from the Sun's photosphere.
  2. Lagrange Point 1 (L1) is a gravitational equilibrium position where a spacecraft can maintain a fixed position relative to the Sun and Earth with minimal fuel consumption.
  3. When Earth-directed CMEs interact with the Earth's magnetosphere, they can trigger geomagnetic storms capable of disrupting satellites and power grids.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: CMEs are massive expulsions of plasma and magnetic fields originating from the Sun's outermost atmosphere, known as the corona, not the photosphere (which is the lower solar surface layer).


Statement 2 is correct: Lagrange Points are positions in space where the gravitational forces of a two-body system (like the Sun and Earth) produce enhanced regions of attraction and repulsion. A spacecraft at L1 can maintain a stable halo orbit to continuously monitor the Sun.


Statement 3 is correct: CMEs release huge quantities of charged particles into space. When they hit Earth's magnetosphere, they induce geomagnetic storms that can disrupt high-voltage power grids, satellite operations, radio communication, and navigation systems.


                            

Q3:

Consider the following statements regarding the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) and its 25th Council of Heads of Government (CHG) meeting:

  1. The 25th Meeting of the SCO Council of Heads of Government was held in Dushanbe, Tajikistan, on 20 October 2026.
  2. The Council of Heads of Government (CHG) is the highest decision-making body of the SCO responsible for setting major political priorities.
  3. Belarus is the newest member of the SCO, having joined in July 2024.
  4. The meeting adopted the Action Plan for the Program of Multilateral Trade and Economic Cooperation (PMTEC) for 2026–2030.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1,3 and 4 only

C: 1, 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The 25th Meeting of the Council of Heads of Government (CHG) of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation was officially held in Dushanbe, Tajikistan, on 20 October 2026.


Statement 2 is incorrect: The Council of Heads of State (CHS) is the highest decision-making body of the SCO that determines major priorities. Conversely, the Council of Heads of Government (CHG) focuses primarily on multilateral cooperation, specifically economic, trade, budgetary, and cultural matters.


Statement 3 is correct: Belarus officially became the newest full member of the SCO in July 2024, expanding total membership to ten countries.


Statement 4 is correct: During the 25th CHG meeting in Dushanbe, member states formally adopted the Action Plan for the Program of Multilateral Trade and Economic Cooperation (PMTEC) for the 2026–2030 period.


                            

Q4:

Consider the following statements regarding the India–New Zealand Free Trade Agreement (FTA), which came into force on 20 October 2026:

  1. New Zealand has provided zero-duty access to 100% of Indian goods exports from the start of the agreement.
  2. India has offered tariff liberalisation across all agricultural and dairy products to ensure complete market symmetry.
  3. The agreement introduces an annual quota of 5,000 Temporary Employment Entry visas for eligible Indian professionals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: New Zealand has provided zero-duty customs access across 100% of tariff lines for qualifying Indian goods from the date the agreement entered into force.


Statement 2 is incorrect: India has excluded dairy products and several sensitive agricultural items (such as milk, cheese, whey, onions, sugar, spices, and edible oils) from tariff concessions to protect domestic farmers and rural livelihoods. India offered tariff liberalisation on about 70% of tariff lines overall.


Statement 3 is correct: The mobility provisions under the FTA include an annual quota of 5,000 Temporary Employment Entry visas for eligible Indian professionals, alongside 1,000 Working Holiday visas for young Indians.


                            

Q5:

With reference to the investment commitments and service sector provisions under the India–New Zealand FTA 2026, which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

  1. Investment Commitment: USD 20 billion from New Zealand into India over 15 years
  2. Services Market Access: Market access across 118 services sectors
  3. Post-Study Work Rights: Up to 5 years for STEM bachelor's and master's graduates in New Zealand

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 2 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

Pair 1 is correct: New Zealand has formally committed to facilitating USD 20 billion in investment into India over a 15-year period, spanning areas like manufacturing, infrastructure, renewable energy, and start-ups.


Pair 2 is correct: Under the services chapter, the agreement provides market access across 118 services sectors and Most-Favoured-Nation (MFN) commitments in roughly 139 sub-sectors, including dedicated access for AYUSH and traditional health systems.


Pair 3 is incorrect: Eligible Indian students have access to post-study work opportunities of up to three years for STEM bachelor's and master's graduates, and up to four years for doctoral graduates (not 5 years).


                            
Aliganj Gomti Nagar Prayagraj