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Daily-mcqs 19 Jun 2026

Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams 19 Jun 2026

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Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams

Q1:

Consider the following statements regarding the 1996 Ganges Water Treaty and the recently approved Padma Barrage Project:

  1. The 1996 Ganges Water Treaty establishes a permanent institutional mechanism for water sharing that remains valid indefinitely unless mutually canceled.
  2. The newly approved 2.1-km-long Padma Barrage is designed as a collaborative joint venture co-financed by India and Bangladesh.
  3. The project aims to counter seasonal water scarcity in southwestern and northern Bangladesh by regulating downstream water storage.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The 1996 Ganges Water Sharing Treaty was signed for a fixed tenure of 30 years and is set to expire in December 2026. It is currently under review, making it a critical, non-permanent diplomatic issue rather than an indefinite treaty.


Statement 2 is incorrect: The Padma Barrage Project is fully financed and executed by Bangladesh internally. Bangladesh's Ministry of Water Resources noted that the infrastructure serves its national interest to assert lower-riparian rights and did not involve bilateral co-financing with India.


Statement 3 is correct: The core utility of the project is to harvest and store approximately 2,900 million cubic metres of water. This will directly reverse dry-season water scarcity, optimize crop irrigation, and reduce the regional over-extraction of groundwater across the affected delta zones.


                            

Q2:

With reference to South Asian transboundary river systems and hydro-infrastructure, consider the following statements:

  1. The Ganga River is officially recognized as the Padma River after crossing the border into Bangladesh.
  2. The proposed Padma Barrage will be situated upstream of India’s Farakka Barrage to regulate flows entering West Bengal.
  3. India's Farakka Barrage was primarily commissioned to divert water into the Bhagirathi-Hooghly system to maintain the navigability of the Kolkata Port.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Ganga River modifies its nomenclature as it enters transboundary territory, flowing through Bangladesh under the name Padma River.


Statement 2 is incorrect: The proposed 2.1-km Padma Barrage will be built approximately 180 km downstream of India's Farakka Barrage, not upstream. It sits entirely within Bangladesh's borders (Rajbari district) to safeguard lower-riparian water allocation.


Statement 3 is correct: India built the Farakka Barrage in West Bengal specifically to channel up to 40,000 cusecs of water into the Feeder Canal connecting to the Bhagirathi-Hooghly River. This flushing mechanism clears silt buildup and preserves vital navigation lanes for the Kolkata Port.


                            

Q3:

Consider the following statements regarding the QS World University Rankings 2027:

  1. No Indian institution features in the global top 100 overall, largely due to weaker performances in academic reputation and internationalisation.
  2. The Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Delhi became India’s top-ranked institution, driven by strong scores in employer reputation and research impact.
  3. Among the evaluation parameters used by QS, "Citations per Faculty" evaluates teaching quality rather than research productivity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 2 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Despite an impressive overall growth of Indian institutions in the QS World University Rankings 2027, no Indian institute has managed to breach the top 100 globally. This is primarily because of systemic deficits in international faculty ratios, student diversity, and the heavily-weighted academic reputation metric.


Statement 2 is correct: IIT-Delhi climbed five places to reach the 118th rank, officially becoming the top institution in India. Its success was bolstered by excellent employment outcomes, citations per faculty, and employer reputation.


Statement 3 is incorrect: The parameter "Citations per Faculty" is one of the key performance indicators used by QS to measure research impact and output, not teaching quality. Indian institutions historically perform very well in this specific metric.


                            

Q4:

With reference to India’s presence in the QS World University Rankings 2027, consider the following statements:

  1. India has the second-highest number of globally ranked universities in the world, trailing only the United States.
  2. The Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) account for the vast majority of India's highest-performing institutions in the ranking.
  3. The QS rankings reflect that India’s higher education presence has declined significantly in terms of the total number of featured institutions over the last decade.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 2 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: India is ranked 5th globally in terms of the total number of institutions featured in the list (52 universities), trailing behind the United States, United Kingdom, China, and Germany.


Statement 2 is correct: The IITs continue to dominate India's higher education landscape. In the latest rankings, a substantial share of the top Indian institutions were IITs, with many holding positions within the global top 500.


Statement 3 is incorrect: India's presence in the rankings has not declined. In fact, it has expanded considerably. Over the past decade, India’s presence has increased by 271%, rising from only 11 featured institutions in 2015 to 52 institutions in 2027.


                            

Q5:

Consider the following statements regarding India's Defence Production sector for FY 2025–26:

  1. The total defence production surpassed ₹1.5 lakh crore, with the private sector's share remaining below 10%.
  2. Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs) still account for the majority of the total defence manufacturing output.
  3. Defence exports have touched a new record high, crossing ₹35,000 crore.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 2 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: While the overall defence production indeed crossed a record ₹1.78 lakh crore in FY 2025–26, the private sector's share reached a record high of 24% (amounting to ₹42,000 crore). Therefore, the private sector's share is well above 10%.


Statement 2 is correct: Although the private sector's contribution is growing, Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs) and other public sector units continue to dominate the sector, holding approximately 76% of the total production share in 2025–26.


Statement 3 is correct: India's push for indigenous manufacturing and defence exports yielded substantial results, with defence exports reaching a record high of ₹38,424 crore in FY 2025–26.


                            

Q6:

With reference to the features and provisions of the India–UK Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA), consider the following statements:

  1. The agreement covers more than 99% of tariff lines in goods trade and provides UK market access for traditional Indian agricultural and dairy products.
  2. The Double Contribution Convention (DCC) is an annexed social security agreement that exempts Indian professionals working in the UK from paying UK National Insurance for a specific period.
  3. The UK maintains a massive trade surplus with India and will eliminate tariffs on almost all Indian goods exports under this deal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The CETA covers more than 99% of tariff lines in goods trade. The UK will eliminate tariffs on almost all Indian exports, while India provides greater market access in sectors like machinery, defence, and advanced manufacturing.


Statement 2 is correct: The Double Contribution Convention (DCC) allows Indian professionals working in the UK to be exempted from paying UK National Insurance for up to 3 years. This prevents them from having to make dual contributions to both Indian and UK social security systems.


Statement 3 is incorrect: India currently maintains a trade surplus with the UK India-UK Vision 2035 and CETA - Drishti IAS. Bilateral trade currently stands at $56 billion (with India’s exports exceeding its imports from the UK). While the UK will eliminate tariffs on Indian goods, it is India that has the surplus.


                            
Aliganj Gomti Nagar Prayagraj