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Daily-mcqs 14 Apr 2026

Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams 14 Apr 2026

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Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC & State PSC Exams

Q1:

With reference to the recent protests against bauxite mining in the Sijimali hills of Odisha, consider the following statements regarding tribal rights and mining governance in India:

  1. Under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, the Governor of the state has special powers to restrict the transfer of land from tribal to non-tribal entities.
  2. The Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act (PESA), 1996, makes the recommendation of the Gram Sabha mandatory for granting mining leases for minor minerals in Scheduled Areas.
  3. The Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006, recognizes community forest rights, allowing tribes to prevent the destruction of their customary habitats.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Fifth Schedule empowers the Governor to make regulations to prohibit or restrict land transfer from tribal to non-tribals, and to regulate the allotment of land to members of Scheduled Tribes in Scheduled Areas.


Statement 2 is correct: The Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act (PESA), 1996, mandates that the recommendation of the Gram Sabha (or Panchayats at the appropriate level) is mandatory for granting prospecting licenses or mining leases for minor minerals in Scheduled Areas.


Statement 3 is correct: The Forest Rights Act, 2006, provides rights over forest land for livelihood and protects the traditional, community-based management of forests, which is a major point of conflict in the Rayagada-Kalahandi region.


                            

Q2:

Regarding Bauxite and Aluminum industry in India, consider the following statements based on the recent Mineral Yearbooks and Mining updates:

  1. Odisha holds the largest share of bauxite resources in India, contributing over 70% of the total production (2022-23).
  2. Bauxite is refined into alumina through the Hall-Héroult process, which is then smelted into aluminium.
  3. The Sijimali mining project is significant for supporting India’s domestic aluminium smelting capacity.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Odisha is the leading producer, accounting for about 41% of resources and, as per 2022-23 data, approximately 73-75% of total bauxite production in India.


Statement 2 is incorrect: Bauxite is refined into alumina through the Bayer process. The resulting alumina is then reduced to aluminium through the Hall-Héroult process.


Statement 3 is correct: The Sijimali bauxite mine was allocated to Vedanta Limited in 2023 to supply raw materials for its alumina refinery/smelting operations, targeting to produce 9 million tonnes per annum (MTPA) of bauxite.


                            

Q3:

Consider the following statements regarding the water crisis in India as reported by the Central Water Commission (CWC) in 2026:

  1. The water storage in 166 major reservoirs monitored by the CWC has fallen below 50% of their total live storage capacity.
  2. The situation is most critical in North India, where reservoir storage has dropped to around 33% of capacity.
  3. Bihar's Chandan Dam has completely dried up, recording zero storage.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is Correct: As of April 2026, CWC data showed that water availability in 166 monitored reservoirs dropped to less than half of their total capacity (around 44.71%), signaling an early summer crisis.


Statement 2 is Incorrect: While the water crisis is severe in South India, the steepest decline is in the Southern Region (falling to around 33% by early April 2026), not North India.


Statement 3 is Correct: The Chandan Dam in Bihar ran completely dry, reaching zero storage, which is a major concern for local irrigation in the region.


                            

Q4:

With reference to the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre, consider the following statements:

  1. The gathering at Jallianwala Bagh was held to peacefully protest the arrest of Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Dr. Satyapal under the Rowlatt Act.
  2. The firing was ordered by Brigadier-General Reginald Dyer without any warning to the crowd to disperse.
  3. The Hunter Commission, appointed to investigate the incident, recommended strict criminal prosecution and imprisonment for General Dyer.
  4. Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood as a mark of protest against the atrocity.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1,3 and 4 only

C: 1, 2 and 4 only

D: 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The gathering on Baisakhi day (April 13, 1919) was a protest against the repressive Rowlatt Act and the secret arrest of prominent Punjabi leaders, Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Dr. Satyapal, on April 9, 1919.


Statement 2 is correct: General Dyer arrived with troops, blocked the only narrow exit of the enclosed ground, and opened fire for roughly 10 minutes without any warning to disperse, firing 1,650 rounds.


Statement 3 is incorrect: The Hunter Commission (Disorders Inquiry Committee) was established on October 14, 1919. While it condemned Dyer's actions as a "grave error" and noted he overstepped his authority, it did not recommend strict criminal prosecution or imprisonment. Dyer was merely relieved of his duty and forced to retire, and he faced no formal punishment.


Statement 4 is correct: In a letter to Viceroy Lord Chelmsford dated May 31, 1919, Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood (received in 1915) to express shock and protest against the brutality in Punjab. Similarly, Mahatma Gandhi returned his 'Kaiser-i-Hind' medal.


                            

Q5:

With reference to the electoral rights in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The right to vote and the right to contest elections are Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Part III of the Constitution of India.
  2. Cooperative societies are generally not considered "State" under Article 12, limiting the direct enforcement of Fundamental Rights against them.
  3. The Supreme Court has clarified that eligibility conditions for contesting elections, such as minimum performance standards, are valid statutory requirements rather than unconstitutional disqualifications.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A: 1 and 2 only

B: 1 and 3 only

C: 2 and 3 only

D: 1, 2, and 3

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: In a recent judgment (and consistent with previous rulings like Jyoti Basu v. Debi Ghosal), the Supreme Court reaffirmed that the right to vote and the right to contest elections are not Fundamental Rights nor common law rights. They are statutory rights (or constitutional rights in specific contexts like Article 326, but not Part III), meaning they are created by statute and can be regulated or limited by the legislature.


Statement 2 is correct: The Court noted that Cooperative Societies are generally not considered "State" within the meaning of Article 12 of the Constitution. Because they do not usually perform sovereign public functions or fall under deep pervasive control of the government, the High Courts should exercise restraint in entertaining writ petitions against them under Article 226.


Statement 3 is correct: The Supreme Court made a clear distinction between eligibility conditions and disqualifications. It held that prescribing positive requirements (like a minimum milk supply for members of a Dairy Cooperative) ensures that those contesting are active participants in the society's objectives. Such conditions are valid "eligibility criteria" and do not amount to an unconstitutional restriction on the right to contest.