Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Government of India formally approved the creation of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) post in December 2019. General Bipin Rawat took office as India's historic first CDS on January 1, 2020.

Statement 2 is correct: The CDS acts as the administrative head and Secretary of the newly formed Department of Military Affairs (DMA) within the Ministry of Defence, looking after multi-service procurement, commands, and staffing.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The creation of the CDS office does not diminish or change the constitutional status of the political leadership. The President of India strictly remains the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces as enshrined in the Constitution. The CDS only provides single-point, integrated professional military advice to the civil government.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The CDS is a four-star general-rank officer, structurally placed as the 'first among equals' relative to the three service chiefs. To ensure administrative continuity, the service rules were amended to establish a maximum service age limit of 65 years for the CDS.

Statement 2 is correct: Instead of a rotational system based on seniority, the CDS now functions as the permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee (CoSC). Additionally, they hold a permanent seat on the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) chaired by the Raksha Mantri to optimize procurement budgets.

Statement 3 is correct: While the Nuclear Command Authority (NCA) is political and chaired by the Prime Minister, the CDS serves as the principal Military Adviser to the NCA, bringing specialized inputs on strategic assets.

Statement 4 is correct: A core foundational pillar of creating this post is to break down institutional silos, promote robust tri-service jointness across logistics, operations, and training, and actively model the transition into unified theatre commands.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:
From June 1, 2026, the MNRE has made it mandatory to use only domestically manufactured solar cells for all new open-access, net-metering, and government-subsidized solar projects. This restriction operates through the Approved List of Models and Manufacturers (ALMM) framework, which outlines exactly which domestic models and suppliers are eligible.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
There is a severe demand–supply mismatch in India's solar infrastructure. Currently, India has a massive solar module assembly capacity of approximately 200 GW per year. However, domestic solar cell manufacturing capacity is disproportionately low at only about 30 GW. Because of this gap, India has heavily relied on imported cells (particularly from China) to produce modules.

Statement 3 is correct:
A primary objective of this local mandate is to provide an assured, captive market for domestic solar cell manufacturers. By ensuring a steady demand for locally produced cells, the government aims to de-risk investments in domestic manufacturing, particularly for companies established under the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme, thus strengthening overall energy security.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: In the 1990s, India’s vulture population suffered a catastrophic decline of up to 99%. Research established that the veterinary non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) diclofenac was the primary cause.

Statement 2 is correct: Vultures are highly susceptible to diclofenac. When they feed on the carcasses of cattle that were recently administered the drug, it causes severe renal failure and rapid mortality.

Statement 3 is correct: As voracious scavengers, vultures play a crucial ecological role in carcass disposal. Their sudden disappearance left decaying carcasses exposed, leading to a proliferation of feral dogs and a subsequent spike in rabies transmission and other disease risks to humans.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: India is home to nine species of vultures, including residents and migrants. The resident species that have suffered the most catastrophic population decline (e.g., White-rumped Vulture, Slender-billed Vulture, and Long-billed Vulture) are classified as Critically Endangered by the IUCN Red List. To provide them with the highest level of legal protection, they are included in Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act 1972.

Statement 2 is correct: While the Red-headed Vulture is also classified as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List, it is uniquely omitted from Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, and falls under Schedule IV.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Vultures like the Himalayan Griffon and Cinereous Vulture are generally listed as Near Threatened or Least Concern, and are usually migratory or restricted to higher Himalayan elevations. They are not afforded Schedule I protection status under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Under the India-Oman CEPA, Oman provides duty-free access to 98.08% of its tariff lines, covering 99.38% of India’s exports to Oman.

Statement 2 is correct: To protect the interests of domestic farmers and industries, both nations mutually excluded sensitive products from tariff concessions. In India's case, these exclusions cover dairy products, tea and coffee, rubber, tobacco, gold, silver bullion, and select footwear.

Statement 3 is incorrect: This marks India’s second CEPA with a GCC country, preceded by the India–UAE CEPA which came into force in 2022.